CCNA 2 Pretest Exam
1. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
- MAC address
- IP address
- subnet mask
2. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?
3. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?
- The command should have been copy startup-config tftp.
- The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.
- The configuration changes were copied into RAM and require a reboot to take effect.
- A TFTP server can only be used to restore the Cisco IOS, not the router configuration.
4. A small car dealership has a scanner that is attached to the PC of the sales manager. When salesmen need to scan a document, they place the document in the scanner and use their own PCs to control the scanner through software on the PC of the manager. After the document is scanned, they can attach it to an email or upload it into the sales software. What type of network model does this scenario describe?
5. Which media access method requires that an end device send a notification across the media before sending data?
- token passing
6. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is configured to obtain a dynamic IP address from the DHCP server. PC1 has been shut down for two weeks. When PC1 boots and tries to request an available IP address, which destination IP address will PC1 place in the IP header?
7. Which statement is true about IPv6 addresses?
- Global unicast addresses are globally unique and can be routed through the Internet.
- Link-local addresses must be unique.
- A loopback address is represented by ::/128.?
- Unique local addresses are used to communicate with other devices on the same link.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?
- Site 1
- Site 2
- Site 3
- Site 4
9. What is the most effective way to mitigate worm and virus attacks?
- Secure all Layer 2 devices.
- Ensure that users change their passwords often.
- Deploy packet filtering firewalls at the network edge.
- Install security updates to patch vulnerable systems.
10. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?
- ipconfig /all
- arp -a
- ipconfig /displaydns
11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
12. In performing a protocol analysis of a network, when should traffic be captured to ensure the most accurate representation of the different traffic types on the network?
- during software upgrades
- during times of moderate network use
- during hours of peak network use
- during weekends and holidays when network use is light
13. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?
14. Refer to the exhibit. What is the link-local IPv6 address of the local computer shown based on the output of the netstat -r command?
15. A network administrator is checking the system logs and notices unusual connectivity tests to multiple well-known ports on a server. What kind of potential network attack could this indicate?
- denial of service
- information theft
16. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?
17. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?
- A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
- The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
- The entire transmission is re-sent.
- The transmission continues without the missing portion.
18. Which three IP addresses are public? (Choose three.)
19. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
- regenerating data signals
- acting as a client or a server
- providing a channel over which messages travel
- applying security settings to control the flow of data
- notifying other devices when errors occur
- serving as the source or destination of the messages
20. Which IP address is a valid network address?
21. What is the range of host IP addresses for the subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
- 172.16.1.33 – 172.16.1.38
- 172.16.1.33 – 172.16.1.46
- 172.16.1.33 – 172.16.1.62
- 172.16.1.32 – 172.16.1.39
- 172.16.1.32 – 172.16.1.47
22. An organization has received the IPv6 network prefix of 2001:db8:1234::/52 from their ISP. How many subnets can be created from this prefix without borrowing bits from the interface ID?
23. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols
24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?
25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
26. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
- It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
- It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
- It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
- It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
- It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
27. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.)
- specifying source addresses for authentication
- specifying internal hosts for NAT
- identifying traffic for QoS
- reorganizing traffic into VLANs
- filtering VTP packets
28. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
- It connects multiple IP networks.
- It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
- It determines the best path to send packets.
- It manages the VLAN database.
- It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
29. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
- It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
- It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
- It has an administrative distance of 1.
- It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
30. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?
- Drop the packet.
- Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.
- Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
- Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.
31. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
- Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
- Configuration of static routes is error-free.
- Static routes scale well as the network grows.
- Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
- The path a static route uses to send data is known.
- No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
32. What is the most likely scenario in which the WAN interface of a router would be configured as a DHCP client to be assigned a dynamic IP address from an ISP?
- There is a web server for public access on the LAN that is attached to the router.
- The router is also the gateway for a LAN.
- It is a SOHO or home broadband router.
- The router is configured as a DHCP server.
33. What are two characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols? (Choose two.)
- They require a lot of hardware resources.
- They know of the network topology from the perspective of their neighbors.
- They compute their own knowledge of the network topology.
- They use hop counts to compute the network topology.
- They flood the routing table to all hosts periodically.
34. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
- ISP selection
- speed of convergence
- the autonomous system that is used
- campus backbone architecture
35. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
- 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
- 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
- 5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
- 16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
36. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
- All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
- Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
- Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
- Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
37. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
- A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
- Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
- Cost equals bandwidth.
- A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
38. A small-sized company has 30 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 126.96.36.199/29 from its ISP. The two servers must be assigned public IP addresses so they are reachable from the outside world. What technology should the company implement in order to allow all workstations to access services over the Internet simultaneously?
- static NAT
- dynamic NAT
- port address translation
39. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?
- the destination MAC address and the incoming port
- the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
- the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
- the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
- the source MAC address and the incoming port
- the source MAC address and the outgoing port
40. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1?
ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0